5.6 about 32 minDeep Learning viewL5 p.10, 31–37

Perinatal disease, prenatal testing and aging

Around birth, immaturity is the main enemy: surfactant, gut and brain vessels are not ready. Prenatal testing separates a risk estimate (screening) from an answer (diagnosis). At the other end of life, accumulated damage and failing repair drive aging.

Pregnancy loss, prematurity and growth

L5 p.31–32
  • Spontaneous abortion (miscarriage)

    Definition
    Loss before 20 weeks
    Main causes and clues
    Mostly first trimester; about half of early losses are chromosomally abnormal (trisomy, 45,X, triploidy); infections (Listeria, group B streptococcus), smoking, alcohol, uterine anomalies
  • Stillbirth

    Definition
    Fetal death at or after 20 weeks
    Main causes and clues
    Commonly placental abruption: premature separation of a normally sited placenta by a retroplacental clot (painful bleeding; hypertension, cocaine, smoking, trauma); also infection, cord accidents, malformations
  • Prematurity

    Definition
    Birth before 37 weeks (usually < 2,500 g)
    Main causes and clues
    RDS, NEC, IVH, infection, retinopathy; the leading cause of neonatal death with congenital anomalies
  • Intrauterine growth restriction (SGA)

    Definition
    Weight < 10th percentile for gestational age
    Main causes and clues
    Preeclampsia and placental insufficiency, poor nutrition, smoking, alcohol and drugs, chromosomal abnormalities, congenital infection
  • Neonatal abstinence syndrome

    Definition
    Withdrawal after in-utero opioid exposure
    Main causes and clues
    1–3 days after birth: tremor, irritability, high-pitched cry, poor feeding and sleep, hypertonia, tachypnea, nasal stuffiness, sneezing, diarrhea

Keep age and size apart. A preterm baby can be the right size for its age (appropriate for gestational age); a term baby can be small (SGA). They have different problems: the preterm baby's organs are immature (surfactant, gut, germinal matrix), while the growth-restricted term baby has mature organs but low reserves (hypoglycemia, hypothermia, polycythemia). Growth restriction that starts early (chromosomal, infection) shrinks head and body together (symmetric); placental insufficiency later in pregnancy spares the head (asymmetric).

Preterm, appropriate size (e.g., 1,500 g at 30 weeks)

  • Immature lungs → RDS
  • Immature gut → NEC
  • Germinal matrix → IVH
  • Problem: development not finished

Term, small for gestational age (e.g., 2,300 g at 40 weeks)

  • Mature lungs
  • Low glycogen and fat → hypoglycemia, hypothermia
  • Chronic hypoxia → polycythemia
  • Problem: growth was limited (placenta, toxin, chromosome)

Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

L5 p.32–33

Surfactant, mainly dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (lecithin) made by type II pneumocytes, lowers alveolar surface tension so that small alveoli stay open at end-expiration. Production starts late in the second trimester and becomes adequate around 34–35 weeks. In a premature lung, alveoli collapse with each breath (atelectasis); the work of breathing soars and blood passes through unventilated lung, causing hypoxemia. Hypoxia injures epithelium and endothelium; plasma proteins leak and fibrin with necrotic cells forms hyaline membranes in the alveolar ducts.

  • Prematurity (the main factor)

    Lowers risk
    Antenatal corticosteroids (betamethasone 24–34 weeks) induce surfactant
  • Maternal diabetes (fetal insulin delays surfactant)

    Lowers risk
    Labor and stress (fetal cortisol surge)
  • Cesarean delivery without labor

    Lowers risk
    Prolonged rupture of membranes, growth restriction (chronic stress)
  • Male sex, second twin, perinatal asphyxia

    Lowers risk
    Exogenous surfactant and CPAP after birth (treatment)

Lecture image

Newborn with labelled signs: tachypnea above 60/min and tachycardia, cyanosis, nasal flaring, grunting, apnea, and chest wall retractions.
Signs within hours of birth: tachypnea, grunting (expiring against a partly closed glottis to keep alveoli open), nasal flaring, retractions, cyanosis.L5 p.33

Worked calculation · Is the fetal lung mature?

Setting
32 weeks, preterm labor, mother with type 1 diabetes
Amniotic lecithin
2.4 mg/dL
Amniotic sphingomyelin
2.0 mg/dL

Formula

L/S ratio = lecithin ÷ sphingomyelin; ≥ 2.0 suggests maturity (≥ 2.5–3.5, or phosphatidylglycerol present, in diabetic pregnancy)

Ref. · lung maturity testing

Core activity · The Missing Arrow

The Missing Arrow

Complete the causal chain. Place the missing step by dragging a card onto a gap, or tap a card and then tap the gap. Some gaps need an event; others need the mechanism that links one event to the next.

A boy born at 29 weeks by cesarean section, without antenatal steroids, is grunting with nasal flaring and retractions within an hour of birth.

  1. Birth at 29 weeks: type II pneumocytes immature
  2. too little surfactant (dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine) lines the alveoli
  3. Hypoxemia and acidosis

Cards

Tap or drag a card. Placing a used card moves it.

NEC, intraventricular hemorrhage and SIDS

L5 p.32

Necrotizing enterocolitis is the most common gastrointestinal emergency of premature infants. An immature mucosal barrier, reduced blood flow (ischemia) and bacterial colonization, typically after formula feeding has started, combine to injure the bowel wall, usually the terminal ileum and right colon. Infants develop feeding intolerance, abdominal distension and bloody stools; the radiograph shows gas in the bowel wall (pneumatosis intestinalis), sometimes portal venous gas or free air after perforation. Survivors may develop strictures or short-bowel syndrome. Breast milk and antenatal steroids lower the risk.

Intraventricular hemorrhage starts in the germinal matrix, a richly vascular zone beside the lateral ventricles that involutes by about 34 weeks. Its thin-walled vessels rupture when cerebral blood flow fluctuates (hypoxia, hypercapnia, blood-pressure swings) in an infant who cannot autoregulate, usually within the first 3 days in babies born before 32 weeks. Blood can extend into the ventricles and the adjacent white matter; posthemorrhagic hydrocephalus and cerebral palsy can follow. Screening cranial ultrasound finds it.

Sudden infant death syndrome is the sudden death of an infant under 1 year that remains unexplained after a complete autopsy, death-scene investigation and review of the history; it peaks at 2–4 months, usually during sleep. A triple-risk model explains it: a vulnerable infant (often subtle brainstem serotonergic abnormalities that blunt arousal and autoresuscitation), a critical developmental period, and an external stressor (prone sleeping, soft bedding, overheating, bed-sharing, tobacco smoke). Prenatal and postnatal smoking, prematurity and low birth weight add risk. Supine sleep on a firm surface, room-sharing without bed-sharing, breastfeeding and a smoke-free home lower it.

Screening: ultrasound, serum markers and AFP

L5 p.10, 34Ch. V cases p.3

Screening tests are offered to every pregnant woman, carry no risk to the fetus and give a probability. Diagnostic tests sample fetal (or placental) cells and give an answer, at a small procedural risk. A positive screen is never a diagnosis; a negative screen does not exclude disease.

Marker patternsL5 p.10, 34

  • Down syndrome

    1st trimester (10–13 wk)
    ↑ β-hCG, ↓ PAPP-A, ↑ nuchal translucency
    2nd trimester (15–20 wk)
    ↓ AFP, ↓ estriol, ↑ hCG, ↑ inhibin A
    Ultrasound
    Thick nuchal fold, absent nasal bone, AV canal defect, double bubble
  • Edwards syndrome (18)

    1st trimester (10–13 wk)
    ↓ β-hCG, ↓ PAPP-A
    2nd trimester (15–20 wk)
    ↓ AFP, ↓ estriol, ↓ hCG
    Ultrasound
    Clenched hands, growth restriction, heart defects
  • Open neural tube defect

    1st trimester (10–13 wk)
    —
    2nd trimester (15–20 wk)
    ↑ AFP (others normal)
    Ultrasound
    Anencephaly; spina bifida (lemon and banana signs)
  • Abdominal wall defect

    1st trimester (10–13 wk)
    —
    2nd trimester (15–20 wk)
    ↑ AFP
    Ultrasound
    Omphalocele, gastroschisis

Cell-free fetal DNA in maternal blood (from about 10 weeks) detects most trisomy 21 but is still a screen: the DNA is placental.

α-Fetoprotein is made by the yolk sac and fetal liver, enters fetal serum, is excreted in fetal urine into the amniotic fluid and crosses into maternal blood. When the neural tube is open, fetal serum leaks directly into the amniotic fluid, so AFP rises in amniotic fluid and maternal serum (acetylcholinesterase in amniotic fluid confirms an open defect). It also rises with abdominal wall defects, multiple pregnancy, fetal death and underestimated gestational age, and is low in Down syndrome.

Case image

Stillborn infant without a cranial vault: exposed hemorrhagic brain tissue seen from behind, and a face with bulging eyes.
Ch. V Q2: anencephaly, the most severe open neural tube defect: absent cranial vault with exposed, degenerated brain tissue. Maternal serum and amniotic AFP are high.Ch. V cases p.3

Diagnosis: sampling and the laboratory test

L5 p.34–35

Chorionic villus sampling

  • 10–13 weeks, transcervical or transabdominal
  • Placental (trophoblast) cells: earliest diagnostic result
  • Cannot measure amniotic AFP
  • Confined placental mosaicism can mislead

Amniocentesis

  • 15–20 weeks (earlier carries more risk, as the lecture notes)
  • Cultured fetal amniocytes + amniotic fluid
  • Measures AFP and acetylcholinesterase
  • Small procedure-related loss rate
L5 p.34

Lecture image

Diagram: needle sampling amniotic fluid through the abdomen and a catheter taking a chorionic biopsy through the cervix; fluid and cells go to cell culture, DNA and cytogenetic study and biochemical analysis.
Amniocentesis and chorionic villus biopsy feed the same laboratories: cell culture for karyotype, DNA analysis and biochemistry. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling gives fetal blood when a rapid karyotype or transfusion is needed.L5 p.35

Which laboratory test answers which questionL5 p.34

  • Karyotype (G-banding)

    What it sees
    Every chromosome: number and large structural changes (≳ 5–10 Mb), including balanced rearrangements
    Blind spot
    Microdeletions, UPD, point mutations; needs dividing cells (days)
    Use it for
    Trisomies, Turner, Klinefelter, Robertsonian carriers
  • FISH

    What it sees
    Specific targets with fluorescent probes, even in non-dividing cells (rapid)
    Blind spot
    Only what you probe; no parent of origin
    Use it for
    22q11.2 deletion, rapid 13/18/21/X/Y count, 15q11–q13 deletion
  • Chromosomal microarray

    What it sees
    Genome-wide gains and losses down to ~50–100 kb; SNP arrays also detect isodisomy/UPD
    Blind spot
    Balanced translocations and inversions (no dose change)
    Use it for
    First-line for developmental delay or multiple anomalies
  • PCR / Southern blot

    What it sees
    Repeat size and methylation
    Blind spot
    Point changes elsewhere
    Use it for
    Fragile X, Huntington, myotonic dystrophy
  • Methylation testing

    What it sees
    Parent-of-origin pattern at imprinted loci
    Blind spot
    UBE3A point mutations (normal methylation)
    Use it for
    Prader–Willi, Angelman (deletion, UPD, imprinting defect)
  • Sequencing (gene, panel, exome)

    What it sees
    Point mutations and small indels
    Blind spot
    Large rearrangements, repeats
    Use it for
    CFTR, FBN1, PAH, HEXA

The lecture names karyotyping, PCR and FISH; microarray, methylation testing and sequencing are added as supporting context.

Cellular aging

L5 p.36–37

Aging is the gradual decline in a cell's ability to divide, repair and keep its proteins and membranes intact. The lecture lists several theories; they are best read as overlapping mechanisms, each with a disease that exaggerates it.

Teaching schematic

  • Telomere shortening

    TTAGGG ends shorten with each division; critically short telomeres trigger a DNA-damage response (p53/p21) → replicative senescence. Telomerase keeps germ and most cancer cells going.

  • DNA damage, failed repair

    Radiation, replication errors and ROS damage DNA; defective repair accelerates aging. Werner syndrome: WRN RecQ helicase lost (AR) → adult progeria with cancer.

  • Oxidative stress

    Free radicals peroxidize membranes and damage proteins and DNA (Ch. 1.5); antioxidant defenses decline with age.

  • Cross-linking and glycation

    Collagen, elastin and lens crystallin become cross-linked; non-enzymatic glycation (AGEs) stiffens tissue and clouds the lens (cataract).

  • Nuclear lamina failure

    Hutchinson–Gilford progeria: de novo LMNA change → progerin (farnesylated lamin A) → misshapen nuclei, genomic instability.

  • Genetic programming

    Lifespan tracks in families and in identical twins; premature-aging syndromes show genes set the pace.

Six mechanisms of cellular aging and their model diseases.L5 p.36–37
  • Telomere shortening. DNA polymerase cannot copy the very end of a chromosome, so the TTAGGG telomere repeats shorten with each division. Critically short telomeres look like broken DNA, activate p53 and p21, and the cell stops dividing (replicative senescence). Telomerase rebuilds telomeres in germ cells and stem cells and is reactivated in most cancers.
  • DNA damage and failing repair (somatic mutation and DNA repair theories). Radiation, replication errors and oxidants damage DNA every day. When repair genes fail, aging accelerates: Werner syndrome (autosomal recessive loss of the WRN RecQ helicase) causes graying, cataracts, skin atrophy, diabetes, atherosclerosis and cancers from early adulthood.
  • Oxidative stress (free radical theory). Reactive oxygen species from mitochondria peroxidize membrane lipids and damage proteins and DNA; antioxidant defenses wane with age.
  • Cross-linking and glycation. Long-lived extracellular proteins (collagen, elastin, lens crystallin) accumulate cross-links; nonenzymatic glycosylation by glucose forms advanced glycation end-products that stiffen tissues and cloud the lens (cataract), faster in diabetes.
  • Genetic programming. Identical twins reach more similar ages than fraternal twins, longevity runs in families, and single-gene premature-aging syndromes exist (progeria; Down syndrome ages early).
L5 p.36

Hutchinson–Gilford progeria shows how one base can age a child. A de novo, autosomal dominant point mutation in LMNA (c.1824C>T) does not change its own amino acid, but it activates a cryptic splice site that deletes 50 amino acids, including the cleavage site that normally removes lamin A's farnesyl anchor. The truncated, permanently farnesylated protein, progerin, stays stuck in the inner nuclear membrane, deforms the nucleus (blebbing), and disturbs chromatin, DNA repair and telomeres. Growth falters from 6–18 months; children lose hair and subcutaneous fat, develop scleroderma-like skin, a beaked nose, micrognathia and osteopenia, keep normal intelligence, and die of atherosclerosis (myocardial infarction, stroke) in their teens. A farnesyltransferase inhibitor (lonafarnib) prolongs survival.

Knowledge check · 5.6

Answer, read why, and try again whenever you like. Answers are kept in both study modes.

0 of 7 correct
  1. Q1AFP in neural tube defectsCh. V cases p.3L5 p.34

    A 28-year-old woman delivers a stillborn with the severe neural tube defect shown (Ch. V Q2).

    Case image

    Stillborn infant seen from the back of the head and from the face: the cranial vault is absent and the exposed brain tissue is hemorrhagic; the eyes bulge.

    Which serum marker would have been increased in this pregnancy?

  2. Q2RDS prevention: antenatal steroidsL5 p.32–33

    A boy born at 30 weeks by cesarean section before labor to a mother with poorly controlled diabetes develops grunting, nasal flaring and retractions within an hour. The chest film shows diffuse ground-glass opacity with air bronchograms. No antenatal medication was given.

    Which measure before delivery would most have reduced his risk?

  3. Q3Quadruple screen patternL5 p.10

    Which second-trimester serum pattern most suggests Down syndrome?

  4. Q4Karyotype vs microarrayL5 p.34

    A child has translocation Down syndrome. The geneticist wants to know whether either healthy parent carries a balanced Robertsonian translocation.

    Which test is needed?

  5. Q5CVS vs amniocentesisL5 p.34

    A 39-year-old woman at 11 weeks has a high-risk first-trimester screen and wants a definitive answer as early as possible.

    Which procedure should be offered now?

  6. Q6Progeria: LMNA/progerinL5 p.37

    A 4-year-old with normal intelligence has alopecia, loss of subcutaneous fat, scleroderma-like skin, a beaked nose and growth failure since infancy. Fibroblasts show misshapen, blebbed nuclei.

    What is the molecular basis?

  7. Q7Necrotizing enterocolitisL5 p.32

    A 29-week infant started on formula 5 days ago develops abdominal distension, bilious aspirates and bloody stools. The abdominal film shows bubbly gas within the bowel wall.

    What is the diagnosis?